Instrument Rating Oral Test Study Guide

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1. Define Air Traffic Clearance.

Air traffic clearance means an authorization by air traffic control, for the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft, for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace. 14CFR Part 1 1.1

2. Define Air Traffic Control.

Air traffic control means a service operated by appropriate authority to promote the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic.

3. Define Alternate Airport.

Alternate airport means an airport at which an aircraft may land if a landing at the intended airport becomes inadvisable.

4. Define Decision Height.

Decision height, with respect to the operation of aircraft, means the height at which a decision must be made, during an ILS or PAR instrument approach, to either continue the approach or to execute a missed approach.

5. Define Flight Visibility.

Flight visibility means the average forward horizontal distance, from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight, at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen and identified by day and prominent lighted objects may be seen and identified by night.

6. Define Ground Visibility.

Ground visibility means prevailing horizontal visibility near the earth's surface as reported by the United States National Weather Service or an accredited observer.

7. Define IFR Conditions.

IFR conditions means weather conditions below the minimum for flight under visual flight rules.

8. Define MDA.

Minimum descent altitude means the lowest altitude, expressed in feet above mean sea level, to which descent is authorized on final approach or during circle-to-land maneuvering in execution of a standard instrument approach procedure, where no electronic glide slope is provided.

9. Define Special VFR Conditions.

Special VFR conditions mean meteorological conditions that are less than those required for basic VFR flight in controlled airspace and in which some aircraft are permitted flight under visual flight rules.

10. Define Special VFR Operations.

Special VFR operations means aircraft operating in accordance with clearances within controlled airspace in meteorological conditions less than the basic VFR weather minima. Such operations must be requested by the pilot and approved by ATC.

II. 14CFR Part 61

11. What time may a pilot log as instrument flight time

1) Flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions. 2) An authorized instructor may log instrument time when conducting instrument flight instruction in actual instrument flight conditions. 14CFR61.51(g)(1,2)

12. Explain recent IFR experience.

6 approaches, holding procedures, and tracking courses in flight or in a simulator/training device of the same catagory within the preceeding 6 calendar months. 14CFR61.57(c)(1)

13. Who can give an instrument proficiency check?

An examiner, a U.S Armed Forces check pilot, company check pilot under part 121, 125 or 135, "an authorized instructor" , or a person approved by the Administrator. 14CFR61.57(d)(2)

14. When is an instrument proficiency check needed?

6 months after the pilot is no longer current. 14CFR61.57(d)

15. What cross country requirements are needed for an instrument rating?

14CFR61.65(d)(1), (2)(iii)

16. What documents must you have in your possession to be legal to fly IFR?

Pilot certificate and medical. 14CFR61.3(b)(1), (c) (also a suitable photo ID)

17. What documents must the aircraft have to be legal to be flown IFR?

18. What flight time must he entered in the pilots logbook?

14CFR61.65(d)(1), (2)(iii)

19. What are the requirements to obtain an instrument rating?

14CFR61.65

III. 14CFR Part 91

20. Who has the final authority for the operation of an aircraft?

21. In case of an emergency, may you deviate from the FARS? To what extent?

Pilot in command. 14CFR91.3(a)

22. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft in an airworthy condition?

Pilot in command. 14CFR91.7(b)

21. What is stated concerning the operation of portable electronic devices on an aircraft during IFR flight? What are the exceptions?

14CFR91.21

22. What are the right-of-way rules when flying IFR?

14CFR91.113

23. What is the max airspeed below 10000 feet MSL?

250 KIAS. 14CFR91.117(a)

24. How fast can you fly inside class B, C, and D airspace?

14CFR91.117(a,b,c)

25. What altimeter setting would you use when flying cross country IFR below 18,000 feet? Above 18,000 feet?

14CFR91.121(a)(1,2)

26. What are the fuel requirements for IFR flight?

14CFR91.167

27. What information must be included in an IFR flight plan?

14CFR91.169

28. How often must your VOR equipment be checked?

14CFR91.171

29. What are the allowable errors?

14CFR91.171

30. What information must be entered in the logs for a VOR check?

Date, place, bearing error, signature. 14CFR91.172

31. What two things are necessary to operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR?

1) Filed an IFR flight plan. 2) Received clearance from ATC. 14CFR91 14CFR91.173(a,b)

32. When may you descend below published MDA or DH while on an instrument approach?

14CFR91.175(c)

33. What requirement must be met to land an aircraft after descending below MDA or DH? 14CFR91.175(c)

34. What are the minimum altitudes for IFR flight when not on an airway?

14CFR91.177(a)(2)

35. What are the appropriate flight altitudes for IFR flight with a magnetic course between 0 and 179 degrees?

14CFR91.179

36. In VFR conditions on an IFR flight plan, you lose two way radio communications. What should you do?

Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. 14CFR91.185(b)

37. What malfunction reports are required when flying IFR in controlled airspace?

14CFR91.187

38. What equipment and instruments are required for IFR flight?

14CFR91.205

39. When must the batteries be replaced in the ELT?

14CFR91.207(c)

40. Who is required to use oxygen at 14,500 feet?

Minimum flight crew. 14CFR91.211(a)(2)

41. Who is required to use oxygen at FL200?

42. When are you required to use a transponder with Mode C? How often must it be tested?

14CFR91.215(b) Tested every 24 calandar months. 14CFR91.411

43. What other systems must be tested for IFR flight? How often?

IV. Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

44. What four phenomenon interfere with an NDB signal?

Lightning, precipitation static, and at night,interference from distant stations. AIM 1-1-2(d)

45. Why should a pilot continuously nonitor an NDB identification while using it?

ADF receivers do not have a "flag" to warn the pilot of errors AIM 1-1-2(d)

46. What restriction does a VOR have?

Line of sight. AIM 1-1-3(a)

47. What accuracy does a VOR have?

Plus or minus 1 degree. AIM 1-1-3(e)(1)

48. Can engine RPM render a VOR inaccurate? If so, why?

Yes, at certain RPMs, the propeller will modulate the VOR signal. AIM 1-1-3(e)(2)(a)

49. What three services does a VORTAC provide?

VOR, DME, TACAN. AIM 1-1-6

50. How far out can a DME signal be reliably received?

Reliable signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line-of-sight altitude. AIM 1-1-7(b)

51. Does DME provide actual horizontal distance or slant range?

Slant range. AIM 1-1-3(e)(2)(a)

52. How often is a DME identifier broadcast?

53. Draw a standard VOR high altitude service volume.

AIM Fig 1-1-2

54. Draw a standard VOR low altitude service volume.

AIM Fig 1-1-3

55. Draw a standard VOR terminal service volume.

AIM Fig 1-1-4

56. List three functions of an ILS system.

1) Guideance information, 2) Range Information, 3) Visual information. AIM 1-1-9(a)

57. What substitutions may be made for the Outer Marker?

58. How wide is the typical localizer?

59. What always proceeds a localizer's identification when used with an ILS?

The letter "I".

60. How far out is a localizer considered reliable?

18 NM.

61. How far out is a glideslope considered reliable.

10 NM

62. What is an LDA?

63. What is an SDF?

64. How wide is a glide slope?

65. What is a standard glide path in degrees?

3 degrees.

66. What does TCH stand for?

67. At what altitude will an aircraft commonly cross the middle marker on glide slope?

Approximately 200 ft.

68. What happens to an ILS if the glide slope fails?

69. What happens to an ILS if the localizer falls?

70. Draw the symbol for an ILS critical area.

71. What are the colors for the marker beacons?

OM = Blue, MM = Amber, IM = White.

72. What happens if a navaid does not produce an identifier?

73. Why is it important to identify navaids in use?

74. What is an ASR?

75. What is a PAR?

76. Draw where REIL would be located on a runway.

77. What is the night time range of VASI?

78. For what reasons would an airport rotating beacon be on?

79. What color is a holding position sign?

80. What airspaces are controlled?

81. What are IFR requirements for controlled airspace?

82. What type of IFR separation do you get in controlled airspace?

83. What are the requirements (aircraft/pilot) to fly in Class A airspace?

84. When is DME required?

85. What equipment is required for IFR flight in Class B airspace?

86. When is a transponder required for Class B area flight? Class C area flight?

87. When is an instrument clearance needed for Class E flight?

88. When is an instrument clearance needed for Class G flight?

89. A pilot is flying IFR on a victor airway that penetrates a restricted area. Does the pilot need to request a clearance through the restricted area?

90. What is the purpose of a MOA?

91. What main information is a pilot flying looking for when listening to ATIS / AW0S?

92. Below what altitude should the Tower Enroute Control Program be used?

93. What does a pilot do when ATC says "squawk altitude"?

Activate Mode C with automatic altitude reporting. AIM 5-3-2 (h)(6)

94. Why would ATC issue this clearance: "stop altitude squawk"?

Turn off altitude reporting switch and continue transmitting Mode C framing pulses. If your equipment does not have this capability, turn off Mode C. AIM 5-3-2 (h)(7)

95. Where is a transponder required?

96. What should a pilot do when ATC issues "squak VFR"?

Operate radar beacon transponder on Code 1200 in the Mode A/3, or other appropriate VFR code. AIM 5-3-2 (h)(11)

97. What information should he presented on initial contact with ATC?

98. A pilot has lost radio communications and needs to enter Class D airspace at APA. What is the procedure?

99. Once on downwind, the pilot sees a steady red light emitting from the tower. What does he do? Give way to other aircraft and continue circling. AIM 4-3-13(d)

100. The pilot, after he lands, sees a flashing red light emitting from the tower. What does he do?

Clear the taxiway/runway. AIM 4-3-13(d)

101. When are anticollision lights and position lights required?

Position lights: Sunset to sunrise. Anticollision lights: All times, with some exceptions. AIM 4-2-23(a), 14CFR 91.209

102. Whhat does "Cleared for the option" mean?

The pilot may make a touch-and-go, low approach, missed approach, stop-and-go, or full stop landing. AIM 4-3-22

103. Why would ATC deny a practice approach?

Traffic or workload conditions. AIM 4-3-21(a)

104. Pilots not on an IFR flight plan desiring practice instrument approaches should always state what word in their request?

Include the word "practice" in the request. AIM 4-3-21(a)

105. What is the difference between a vectored approach and a full approach?

106. Can a FSS facility approve/disapprove a pilots request for practice approach?

107. What six items are found in an ATC clearance?

108. What mnemonic is used for an ATC clearance?

109. What does "cruise 5000" mean?

110. How many minutes before reaching a holding fix should the pilot slow the aircraft down to holding speed?

111. What is the maximum holding speed?

112. When is a special VFR clearance needed?

113. What requirements are needed for a special VFR clearance during the day? Night?

114. When receiving a clearance, what responsibility does the pilot have?

115. If the pilot is cleared in flight direct to an NDB and the pilot is not receiving the NDB identification nor a strong signal, what should he do?

116. How much time should be allowed between filing and activating a flight plan?

117. What suffix should be used for a DME and transponder (mode C) equipped aircraft when filing IFR?

116. What point should he included in the route section of the flight plan.

119. Where can preferred routes be found?

A/FD

120. How can a pilot avoid a SID or STAR?

121. What is the pilots responsibility when filing an IFR direct route?

122. On a flight plan, is your estimated time enroute based on a no wind or forecast wind situation?

123. When will ATC drop your unactivated flight plan?

124. When at an uncontrolled field, how do you close your IFR flight plan?

125. At a tower controlled field, how do you close your IFR flight plan?

126. How long does a pilot have to close an IFR flight plan before search and rescue is initiated?

127. At a controlled field, how does a pilot open an IFR flight plan?

128. At an uncontrolled field, how does a pilot open an IFR flight plan?

129. How does a pilot open an IFR flight plan when airborne?

130. What is a clearance void time?

131. When a clearance void time expires, what is the pilot's responsibility if not airborne?

132. What is minimum climb gradient?

133. What is the lowest possible climb gradient for IFR?

134. When contacting an ARTCC, what information should be provided?

135. What should a pilot do when he's cleared to contact another ARTCC sector and no one responds on the new frequency?

136. Draw the symbol for a change over point.

137. If a change over point does not exist, where should the pilot switch to a new navaid?

138. How many minutes before a pilot reaches a holding fix should ATC issue holding instructions?

139. When should a pilot start timing outbound in an NDB hold? VOR hold?

140. What is the direction of turns in a standard hold?

141. What is a standard rate turn in degrees per second?

142. If the turn coordinator fails, what is the rule of thumb for a standard rate turn?

143. What is maximum degrees bank for a standard rate turn?

144. On an IFR cross country, how can a pilot determine what approach is in use at his destination?

145. What is an MSA used for?

146. What is an MVA used for?

147. What is a VDP depicted for?

146. What symbol defines a VDP?

149. What defines category A,D,C,D,E approach minimums?

150. At what point of any instrurpent approach is the pilot considered established?

151. What would the pilot do if he received this clearance: "cleared approach"?

152. The procedure turn is a required maneuver except when what five exceptions exist.

153. The pilot may execute any type of a course reversal for procedure turn except when what condition exists?

154. A procedure turn needs to be accomplished how many miles from the center of the approach?

155. When should a pilot execute the side step in a side step approach?

156. When are straight in minimums published?

157. When should a pilot descend below circling maneuver minimums?

158. When and where does a pilot execute a missed approach?

159. if a pilot is circling to land from an approach and is unable to maintain VFR, what actions should he take?

160. Does a pilot request a visual or contact approach?

161. Does ATC assign a contact or visual approach?

ATC may assign a visual approach. A contact approach must be requested by the Pilot.

162. What are the minimums for a contact approach?

163. If a radio communication failure happens during flight, what route should the pilot fly? What altitude?

164. If a pilot's radio fails, what possible way could he monitor ATC?

165. If a pilot flies into icing conditions, what actions should he take and what equipment should he use?

166. Describe the difference between anti-ice and de-ice equipment. Give examples.

167. At what airspeed should a pilot fly if encountering icing?

168. What is the furthest station you should be setting your altimeter to?

169. What does a controller mean when he says "the jet above you is restricted to 4000 feet"?

170. What does approach mean when they say "maintain 3000 feet until established on the localizer"?

171. What does approach mean when they say "maintain 3000 feet until established on any part of the published approach procedure"?

172. What does ATC mean when they say "maintain 090 until direct Tulsa?"

173. When should a pilot report "direct"?

174. What does "pilot discretion" mean?

175. What does "resume own navigation mean?

176. At what point can a turn be initiated on a missed approach?

V. APPROACH PLATES

177. How much RVR is 1/2 mile?

178. What are the standard takeoff minimums?

179. What are part 135 standard takeoff minimums?

180. Where can departure procedures be found?

181. What is the standard rate of descent (3 degree glide slope) for 90 kts?

VI. PITOT STATIC

182. Draw a standard pitot static system.

183. What happens when the pitot tube freezes, drain hole open?

184. What happens when the pitot tube and the drain hole freeze?

185. What happens when the pitot tube, drain hole and static ports freeze?

186. What happens when just the static ports freeze?

187. What actions should be initiated when the static ports freeze?

188. What errors do you have if you use alternate static air?

VII. VACUUM SYSTEM

189. What instruments operate from the vacuum system?

190. What is the maximum allowable precession for the DG?

191. What is the maximum allowable error for the attitude indicator?

VIII. COMPASS

192. What five errors exist in the compass?

193. What type of fluid is in the compass?

IX. LOW ENROUTE NAVIGATION

194. When may a pilot descend to the MOCA?

195. What does the MOCA guarantee?

196. What does the MEA guarantee?

197. Define MRA, MCA, and MAA?

196. Why would an MAA be assigned?

199. What are the eight components of a position report?

1)Identification, 2)Position, 3)Time, 4)Altitude, 5)Type of flight plan, 6)ETA next reporting point, 7)Name only of the next succeeding reporting point, 8)Remarks. AIM 5-3-2 (d)(1)

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Last modified 09/17/02.